No, I wouldn't say that. However, I also wouldn't make it as personal as John and David suggest.
I've said many times on NN that if you read the Scripture, Earliest theologians, and Liturgical texts together, the Christian faith can be summed up in one idea:
God has given Godself to humanity in the form of flesh and blood, for us and for our salvation.
God does this through
(1) The flesh and blood in the Incarnation
(2) The Flesh and blood of the Body of Christ in his absence, present in 2 forms:
---- (a) Uniquely in the Elements of the Eucharist
---- (b) In the bodies of the people who have been united to Christ through the Sacraments
(3) When God comes again in flesh and blood in the 2nd coming of Christ
So, no, I would not say Christ is not present in services where the Eucharist is not celebrated. I would say that the people and the pastor are missing out on a unique presence of Christ afforded to us only in the elements.
I would also say, per Jesus' words in
John 6, that services without the Eucharist are unfortunate, as they are an act of self-inflicted deprivation and starvation. God graciously offers us manna from heaven and we only partake of it once a month?
My problem, ultimately, with this is that you're trying to equate two things which are not equal and, by doing so, justifying the negelct of one of those two things. Your question presumes that "Christ's presence", specifically in the People of God, is the same as Christ's presence in the Eucharist and, therefore, one can skip the Eucharist with no ill-effect because the same presence is afforded through fellowship.
I couldn't disagree more and I believe that Scripture and Tradition, both the Early theologians and the historical liturgical texts, including the dominant Christian Tradition, all agree with me on this.